• Card 14 / 34: For questions #2 and #3, match the most likely cause of diarrhea from the list below.A 46 year-old man has had non-bloody diarrhea for more than one year. He also has epigastric abdominal pain which prompted an upper endoscopy. This revealed erosive esophagitis and several gastric and duodenal ulcers, some in the second portion of the duodenum.
    01.) Laxative abuse
    02.) Chronic pancreatitis
    03.) Crohn’s disease
    04.) Bile acid malabsorption
    05.) Celiac sprue
    06.) Ischemic colitis
    07.) Carcinoid syndrome
    08.) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
    09.) Hyperthyroidism
    10.) Irritable bowel syndrome
    11.) Ulcerative colitis
    12.) Amebiasis

    Answer:
    08.) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

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Explanation:

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Diarrhea is due to hypersecretion of HCl (increased fluid load to small intestine) and acid inactivation of pancreatic enzymes causing fat malabsorption.

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Gastrointestinal Pathophysiology Self-Assessment

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Access: Public

Attribution:  Laurence Scott Bailen, Tamsin Knox, Paul Abourjaily, Fredric D. Gordon,Marshall Kaplan,Andrew G. Plaut. PPY 222 Gastrointestinal Pathophysiology, Spring 2007. (Tufts University OpenCourseWare), http://ocw.tufts.edu/Course/47 (Accessed 3 May, 2014). License: Creative Commons BY-NC-SA
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